Graduate Pharmacy Aptitude Test:
1. Which of the following drugs is classified as a Schedule I controlled substance by the Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA)?
a. Amphetamine
b. Diazepam
c. Codeine
d. Tramadol
Answer: a. Amphetamine
Explanation: Schedule I controlled substances have no accepted medical use and a high potential for abuse. Amphetamine is one such substance, while Diazepam and Codeine are Schedule IV controlled substances and Tramadol is a Schedule III controlled substance.
2. Which of the following pharmacokinetic parameters describes the amount of drug that reaches the systemic circulation after administration?
a. Bioavailability
b. Volume of distribution
c. Clearance
d. Half-life
Answer: a. Bioavailability
Explanation: Bioavailability is the fraction of the administered dose that reaches the systemic circulation. Volume of distribution describes the apparent volume into which a drug distributes in the body, clearance describes the rate at which a drug is eliminated from the body, and half-life describes the time it takes for the concentration of a drug to decrease by half.
3. Which of the following enzymes is responsible for the metabolism of most drugs?
a. CYP3A4
b. CYP2C9
c. CYP2D6
d. CYP1A2
Answer: a. CYP3A4
Explanation: CYP3A4 is responsible for the metabolism of most drugs, accounting for around 30-40% of drug metabolism. CYP2C9 and CYP2D6 are also important drug-metabolizing enzymes, while CYP1A2 is responsible for the metabolism of only a limited number of drugs.
4. Which of the following is a mechanism of action of beta-blockers?
a. Inhibition of cyclooxygenase
b. Inhibition of angiotensin-converting enzyme
c. Inhibition of sodium-potassium ATPase
d. Antagonism of beta-adrenergic receptors
Answer: d. Antagonism of beta-adrenergic receptors
Explanation: Beta-blockers are a class of drugs that antagonize beta-adrenergic receptors, leading to decreased heart rate, decreased contractility, and decreased blood pressure. Inhibition of cyclooxygenase is the mechanism of action of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, inhibition of angiotensin-converting enzyme is the mechanism of action of angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors, and inhibition of sodium-potassium ATPase is the mechanism of action of cardiac glycosides.
5. Which of the following is an example of a type III hypersensitivity reaction?
a. Anaphylaxis
b. Contact dermatitis
c. Serum sickness
d. Delayed-type hypersensitivity
Answer: c. Serum sickness
Explanation: Type III hypersensitivity reactions are immune complex-mediated reactions that occur when antigens and antibodies form immune complexes that deposit in tissues and trigger an inflammatory response. Serum sickness is an example of a type III hypersensitivity reaction. Anaphylaxis is a type I hypersensitivity reaction, contact dermatitis is a type IV hypersensitivity reaction, and delayed-type hypersensitivity is also a type IV hypersensitivity reaction.
6. Which of the following is the recommended treatment for an overdose of opioids?
a. Naloxone
b. Flumazenil
c. Physostigmine
d. Activated charcoal
Answer: a. Naloxone
Explanation: Naloxone is a competitive antagonist of opioid receptors and is the recommended treatment for an overdose of opioids. Flumazenil is a benzodiazepine antagonist and is used to treat benz
7. Which of the following statements about pharmacokinetics is true?
A. It refers to the study of the mechanisms of drug action in the body.
B. It describes how drugs are formulated and manufactured.
C. It deals with the way drugs are absorbed, distributed, metabolized, and eliminated by the body.
D. It is the process by which drugs are prescribed by physicians.
Answer: C. Pharmacokinetics refers to the way drugs are absorbed, distributed, metabolized, and eliminated by the body.
8. Which of the following is NOT an example of a drug interaction?
A. A drug increases the effectiveness of another drug.
B. A drug decreases the effectiveness of another drug.
C. Two drugs taken together have a synergistic effect.
D. A drug and a food interact in a way that affects drug absorption.
Answer: D. A drug and a food interacting in a way that affects drug absorption is not an example of a drug interaction.
9. What is the meaning of the term ‘pharmacovigilance’?
A. The study of how drugs are absorbed and distributed in the body.
B. The monitoring and assessment of adverse drug reactions.
C. The process of manufacturing pharmaceuticals.
D. The study of how drugs interact with other substances in the body.
Answer: B. Pharmacovigilance is the monitoring and assessment of adverse drug reactions to ensure patient safety.
10.What is the function of the blood-brain barrier?
A. To allow free exchange of molecules between the bloodstream and the brain.
B. To protect the brain from toxins and other harmful substances.
C. To regulate the distribution of nutrients to the brain.
D. To regulate blood pressure in the brain.
Answer: B. The blood-brain barrier protects the brain from toxins and other harmful substances.
11. Which of the following is an example of a prodrug?
A. Aspirin
B. Morphine
C. Codeine
D. Levodopa
Answer: D. Levodopa is an example of a prodrug, which means it is an inactive compound that is converted to an active form in the body.
12. Which of the following is NOT a potential adverse effect of long-term corticosteroid use?
A. Osteoporosis
B. Hypertension
C. Diabetes
D. Weight gain
Answer: B. Long-term corticosteroid use can cause osteoporosis, diabetes, and weight gain, but not hypertension.
13. What is the role of the cytochrome P450 enzyme system in drug metabolism?
A. To transport drugs across cell membranes.
B. To metabolize drugs in the liver and other organs.
C. To regulate the absorption of drugs from the gastrointestinal tract.
D. To break down drugs in the bloodstream.
Answer: B. The cytochrome P450 enzyme system is responsible for metabolizing drugs in the liver and other organs.
14. Which of the following is a Schedule II controlled substance according to the Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA)?
A. Marijuana
B. Cocaine
C. Xanax
D. Codeine
Answer: B. Cocaine is a Schedule II controlled substance, which means it has a high potential for abuse and dependence.
15. What is the meaning of the term ‘bioavailability’?
A. The amount of drug that is absorbed into the bloodstream after administration.
B. The rate at which a drug is eliminated from the body.
C. The potency of a drug in relation to its dosage.
D. The length of time a drug remains effective in the body.
Answer: A. Bioavailability refers to the amount of drug that is absorbed into the bloodstream after administration.
16. What is the mode of action of antibiotics?
a) Inhibition of cell wall synthesis
b) Inhibition of protein synthesis
c) Inhibition of nucleic acid synthesis
d) All of the above
Answer: d) All of the above
Explanation: Antibiotics can have different modes of action, including inhibition of cell wall synthesis, protein synthesis, and nucleic acid synthesis, depending on the specific antibiotic.
17. Which of the following drugs is an opioid analgesic?
a) Aspirin
b) Ibuprofen
c) Morphine
d) Acetaminophen
Answer: c) Morphine
Explanation: Morphine is an opioid analgesic, meaning it is a narcotic pain reliever derived from the opium poppy.
18. Which of the following is a potential side effect of corticosteroids?
a) Increased appetite
b) Weight loss
c) Hypertension
d) All of the above
Answer: a) Increased appetite
Explanation: Corticosteroids can cause a range of side effects, including increased appetite, weight gain, hypertension, and others, depending on the specific medication and dosage.
19. What is the primary function of ACE inhibitors?
a) Lowering blood pressure
b) Reducing inflammation
c) Increasing insulin sensitivity
d) Stimulating the immune system
Answer: a) Lowering blood pressure
Explanation: ACE inhibitors are used primarily to treat hypertension by inhibiting the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II, thereby reducing vasoconstriction and lowering blood pressure.
20. What is the mechanism of action of antihistamines?
a) Inhibition of histamine release
b) Blockade of histamine receptors
c) Stimulation of histamine synthesis
d) All of the above
Answer: b) Blockade of histamine receptors
Explanation: Antihistamines work by blocking the action of histamine at its receptors, thereby reducing symptoms of allergies, such as itching, sneezing, and runny nose.
21. Which of the following drugs is a diuretic?
a) Furosemide
b) Ranitidine
c) Metformin
d) Gabapentin
Answer: a) Furosemide
Explanation: Furosemide is a diuretic, meaning it increases urine output and reduces fluid buildup in the body, thereby lowering blood pressure and treating edema.
22. What is the mechanism of action of statins?
a) Inhibition of cholesterol synthesis
b) Stimulation of insulin secretion
c) Blockade of prostaglandin synthesis
d) Enhancement of blood clotting
Answer: a) Inhibition of cholesterol synthesis
Explanation: Statins work by inhibiting the enzyme HMG-CoA reductase, which is involved in cholesterol synthesis, thereby reducing blood cholesterol levels and lowering the risk of heart disease.
23. What is the role of pharmacists in patient care?
a) Dispensing medication only
b) Providing medication information to patients only
c) Collaborating with healthcare providers and patients to optimize medication therapy
d) None of the above
Answer: c) Collaborating with healthcare providers and patients to optimize medication therapy
Explanation: Pharmacists play a crucial role in patient care by working closely with healthcare providers and patients to ensure safe and effective medication therapy. This involves dispensing medications, providing medication information, and monitoring patients for adverse drug reactions.
24. What is the process of drug development?
a) Drug design, preclinical testing, clinical testing, FDA approval
b) FDA approval, drug design, clinical testing, preclinical testing
c) Preclinical testing, drug design, FDA approval, clinical testing
d) Clinical testing, drug design, preclinical testing, FDA approval
Answer: c) Preclinical testing, drug design, FDA approval, clinical testing
Explanation: Drug development involves several stages, including drug design, preclinical testing (in vitro and in vivo), clinical testing (Phase I-III trials), and FDA approval. Preclinical testing is done to assess the safety and efficacy of the drug before it is tested in humans. The FDA then reviews the data from the preclinical and clinical trials to determine if the drug is safe and effective for use.
25. What is the role of the FDA in drug approval?
a) To ensure the safety and efficacy of drugs
b) To design drugs for specific diseases
c) To manufacture and distribute drugs
d) None of the above
Answer: a) To ensure the safety and efficacy of drugs
Explanation: The FDA is responsible for reviewing and approving drugs for use in the United States. Their primary role is to ensure the safety and efficacy of drugs by reviewing data from preclinical and clinical trials. The FDA also monitors drugs after they are approved to ensure ongoing safety.
26. What is the primary goal of pharmacovigilance?
a) To improve the efficacy of drugs
b) To monitor and report adverse drug reactions
c) To design new drugs
d) None of the above
Answer: b) To monitor and report adverse drug reactions
Explanation: Pharmacovigilance is the science and activities related to the detection, assessment, understanding, and prevention of adverse effects or any other drug-related problem. The primary goal of pharmacovigilance is to monitor and report adverse drug reactions to ensure the safety of patients using medications.
27. What is the role of a clinical pharmacist in healthcare?
a) To dispense medications only
b) To monitor patients for adverse drug reactions only
c) To provide medication information and collaborate with healthcare providers to optimize medication therapy
d) None of the above
Answer: c) To provide medication information and collaborate with healthcare providers to optimize medication therapy
Explanation: Clinical pharmacists are trained to work collaboratively with healthcare providers to ensure safe and effective medication therapy. This involves providing medication information, monitoring patients for adverse drug reactions, and working with healthcare providers to optimize medication therapy for individual patients. Clinical pharmacists also play a key role in medication reconciliation and drug utilization review to prevent medication errors.
28. What is the mechanism of action of the drug aspirin?
A) Inhibits COX-1 and COX-2 enzymes
B) Activates adenylyl cyclase
C) Antagonizes NMDA receptors
D) Blocks potassium channels
Answer: A) Inhibits COX-1 and COX-2 enzymes
Explanation: Aspirin is a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that inhibits the cyclooxygenase (COX) enzymes. Specifically, it irreversibly inhibits the COX-1 enzyme, which plays a role in maintaining gastric mucosal integrity and platelet aggregation, and the COX-2 enzyme, which is involved in inflammation and pain.
29. What is the mechanism of action of the drug atropine?
A) Activates muscarinic acetylcholine receptors
B) Inhibits acetylcholinesterase
C) Blocks voltage-gated calcium channels
D) Antagonizes histamine receptors
Answer: A) Activates muscarinic acetylcholine receptors
Explanation: Atropine is an anticholinergic drug that acts by blocking the muscarinic acetylcholine receptors. By doing so, it reduces the parasympathetic tone and leads to effects such as increased heart rate, bronchodilation, and decreased gastrointestinal motility.
30. Which of the following is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI)?
A) Fluoxetine
B) Amitriptyline
C) Venlafaxine
D) Duloxetine
Answer: A) Fluoxetine
Explanation: Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are a class of antidepressant drugs that selectively inhibit the reuptake of serotonin at the presynaptic membrane. Fluoxetine is an example of an SSRI.
31. Which of the following is a benzodiazepine that is commonly used as an anxiolytic?
A) Alprazolam
B) Diazepam
C) Lorazepam
D) Clonazepam
Answer: A) Alprazolam
Explanation: Benzodiazepines are a class of drugs that act as central nervous system (CNS) depressants and are used for various indications, including anxiety, insomnia, and seizures. Alprazolam is a commonly prescribed benzodiazepine that is used for the treatment of anxiety disorders.
32. What is the mechanism of action of the drug simvastatin?
A) Inhibits HMG-CoA reductase
B) Activates PPAR receptors
C) Blocks beta-adrenergic receptors
D) Antagonizes angiotensin II receptors
Answer: A) Inhibits HMG-CoA reductase
Explanation: Simvastatin is a statin drug that works by inhibiting the enzyme HMG-CoA reductase, which is involved in cholesterol synthesis. By inhibiting this enzyme, simvastatin reduces the production of cholesterol in the liver, leading to lower levels of LDL cholesterol in the blood.
33. What is the mode of action of a competitive antagonist?
A) It binds irreversibly to the receptor
B) It binds to the receptor but does not activate it
C) It activates the receptor
D) It binds to a different site on the receptor
Answer: B) It binds to the receptor but does not activate it
Explanation: A competitive antagonist competes with the agonist for binding to the same receptor site. However, it does not activate the receptor, and therefore does not produce a response. It can be displaced by increasing the concentration of the agonist, as they compete for the same binding site.
34. Which of the following is not a mechanism of enzyme inhibition?
A) Competitive inhibition
B) Non-competitive inhibition
C) Uncompetitive inhibition
D) Covalent modification
Answer: D) Covalent modification
Explanation: Enzyme inhibition can occur through various mechanisms, including competitive, non-competitive, and uncompetitive inhibition. Covalent modification is not a type of inhibition, but rather a way in which enzymes can be activated or deactivated by the addition or removal of a chemical group.
35. Which of the following drug classes is a proton pump inhibitor?
A) H2 antagonists
B) Antacids
C) Antispasmodics
D) Prokinetics
Answer: A) H2 antagonists
Explanation: Proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) are a class of drugs that reduce the production of stomach acid by inhibiting the action of proton pumps in the stomach lining. H2 antagonists, such as ranitidine and famotidine, also reduce stomach acid production but do so by blocking the action of histamine on H2 receptors in the stomach.
36. Which of the following drugs is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor?
A) Fluoxetine
B) Venlafaxine
C) Mirtazapine
D) Amitriptyline
Answer: A) Fluoxetine
Explanation: Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are a class of antidepressant drugs that selectively block the reuptake of serotonin in the brain, leading to increased levels of serotonin in the synaptic cleft. Fluoxetine is a commonly used SSRI, whereas venlafaxine is a serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor (SNRI). Mirtazapine and amitriptyline are tricyclic antidepressants with different mechanisms of action.
37. Which of the following is a direct-acting sympathomimetic drug?
A) Clonidine
B) Dobutamine
C) Prazosin
D) Propranolol
Answer: B) Dobutamine
Explanation: Sympathomimetic drugs mimic the effects of the sympathetic nervous system, which is responsible for the “fight or flight” response. Direct-acting sympathomimetics directly stimulate adrenergic receptors, whereas indirect-acting sympathomimetics increase the release of endogenous catecholamines. Dobutamine is a direct-acting sympathomimetic that selectively activates beta-1 adrenergic receptors, leading to increased cardiac output. Clonidine and prazosin are alpha-adrenergic agonists and antagonists, respectively, while propranolol is a non-selective beta-blocker.
38. Which of the following is a commonly used technique for drug delivery?
A. Nuclear magnetic resonance (NMR)
B. Polymerase chain reaction (PCR)
C. Liposomes
D. Chromatography
Answer: C. Liposomes are commonly used as a technique for drug delivery.
Explanation: Liposomes are spherical lipid bilayer vesicles that can be filled with drugs and used for drug delivery. They are commonly used because they are biodegradable and biocompatible.
39. Which of the following is not a type of chromatography?
A. Gas chromatography
B. Liquid chromatography
C. Gel filtration chromatography
D. Polymerase chain reaction (PCR)
Answer: D. Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) is not a type of chromatography.
Explanation: PCR is a technique used to amplify DNA, whereas chromatography is a technique used to separate and identify the components of a mixture.
40. Which of the following is an example of a controlled substance?
A. Aspirin
B. Acetaminophen
C. Codeine
D. Cetirizine
Answer: C. Codeine is an example of a controlled substance.
Explanation: Controlled substances are drugs that have the potential for abuse and dependence, and are therefore subject to regulation by the government. Codeine is a narcotic pain reliever and is classified as a Schedule II controlled substance.
41. What is the function of a pharmacokinetic study?
A. To determine the pharmacological effects of a drug
B. To determine the physical properties of a drug
C. To determine the metabolism and elimination of a drug
D. To determine the chemical structure of a drug
Answer: C. The function of a pharmacokinetic study is to determine the metabolism and elimination of a drug.
Explanation: Pharmacokinetics is the study of how a drug is absorbed, distributed, metabolized, and eliminated by the body. A pharmacokinetic study is designed to determine the fate of a drug in the body over time.
42. Which of the following is an example of an anti-inflammatory drug?
A. Acetaminophen
B. Ibuprofen
C. Loratadine
D. Pseudoephedrine
Answer: B. Ibuprofen is an example of an anti-inflammatory drug.
Explanation: Anti-inflammatory drugs are used to reduce inflammation and pain. Ibuprofen is a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that works by inhibiting the production of prostaglandins, which are responsible for causing pain and inflammation.
43. What is the purpose of a placebo in a clinical trial?
A. To provide a baseline for comparison
B. To ensure that all participants receive treatment
C. To minimize the risk of side effects
D. To eliminate the placebo effect
Answer: A. The purpose of a placebo in a clinical trial is to provide a baseline for comparison.
Explanation: A placebo is a substance or treatment that has no therapeutic effect, but is used in a clinical trial as a control. The purpose of a placebo is to provide a baseline against which the effects of the treatment being tested can be measured.
44. Which of the following drugs is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor?
a) Paroxetine
b) Fluoxetine
c) Citalopram
d) All of the above
Answer: d) All of the above
Explanation: Paroxetine, fluoxetine, and citalopram are all examples of selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs), a class of drugs commonly used to treat depression and anxiety.
45. Which of the following is NOT a potential side effect of statin drugs?
a) Muscle pain
b) Liver damage
c) Memory loss
d) Headache
Answer: d) Headache
Explanation: Statin drugs are commonly used to lower cholesterol levels, but can cause side effects such as muscle pain and liver damage. Memory loss is also a potential side effect, but headache is not typically associated with statin use.
46. Which of the following drugs is an ACE inhibitor?
a) Lisinopril
b) Losartan
c) Amlodipine
d) Furosemide
Answer: a) Lisinopril
Explanation: Lisinopril is an example of an ACE inhibitor, a class of drugs commonly used to treat high blood pressure and heart failure. Losartan is an angiotensin receptor blocker (ARB), while amlodipine and furosemide are calcium channel blockers and loop diuretics, respectively.
47. Which of the following drugs is a proton pump inhibitor?
a) Ranitidine
b) Omeprazole
c) Famotidine
d) Cimetidine
Answer: b) Omeprazole
Explanation: Omeprazole is an example of a proton pump inhibitor (PPI), a class of drugs used to treat gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) and other acid-related conditions. Ranitidine, famotidine, and cimetidine are H2 receptor antagonists, which also work to reduce acid production in the stomach.
48. Which of the following drugs is a beta blocker?
a) Atenolol
b) Metoprolol
c) Nebivolol
d) All of the above
Answer: d) All of the above
Explanation: Atenolol, metoprolol, and nebivolol are all examples of beta blockers, a class of drugs commonly used to treat high blood pressure, heart failure, and other cardiovascular conditions.
49. Which of the following drugs is a calcium channel blocker?
a) Diltiazem
b) Propranolol
c) Clonidine
d) Enalapril
Answer: a) Diltiazem
Explanation: Diltiazem is an example of a calcium channel blocker, a class of drugs commonly used to treat high blood pressure, angina, and other cardiovascular conditions. Propranolol and clonidine are beta blockers, while enalapril is an ACE inhibitor.
50. Which of the following is NOT a potential side effect of corticosteroid use?
a) Increased appetite
b) Weight gain
c) Insomnia
d) Low blood sugar
Answer: d) Low blood sugar
Explanation: Corticosteroids are a class of drugs used to treat inflammation, autoimmune disorders, and other conditions. Side effects can include increased appetite, weight gain, and insomnia, but they do not typically cause low blood sugar.
51 . What is the function of beta-adrenergic agonists?
a) Relaxing smooth muscle in the airways
b) Stimulating the immune system
c) Reducing inflammation
d) Increasing insulin sensitivity
Answer: a) Relaxing smooth muscle in the airways
Explanation: Beta-adrenergic agonists, such as albuterol, are used to treat asthma and other respiratory disorders by relaxing smooth muscle in the airways, thereby improving breathing.