(i) Pharmacology & Toxicology:
1. Which of the following is an example of a drug with a narrow therapeutic index?
A) Aspirin
B) Paracetamol
C) Digoxin
D) Ibuprofen
Answer: C) Digoxin
Explanation: A drug with a narrow therapeutic index means that there is a small difference between the dose required to achieve a therapeutic effect and the dose that causes toxicity. Digoxin is an example of such a drug, as it is used to treat heart failure and atrial fibrillation, but it can also cause serious toxicity if the dose is too high.
2. Which of the following is not a type of drug interaction?
A) Pharmacokinetic
B) Pharmacodynamic
C) Pharmacogenic
D) Pharmaceutical
Answer: C) Pharmacogenic
Explanation: Pharmacokinetic and pharmacodynamic interactions are the two main types of drug interactions. Pharmaceutical interactions refer to the physical or chemical interactions between different drugs or between a drug and an excipient. Pharmacogenic is not a recognized term in pharmacology.
3. What is the mechanism of action of benzodiazepines?
A) They inhibit GABA receptors
B) They stimulate dopamine receptors
C) They block acetylcholine receptors
D) They activate histamine receptors
Answer: A) They inhibit GABA receptors
Explanation: Benzodiazepines enhance the effects of GABA, the primary inhibitory neurotransmitter in the brain, by binding to specific sites on GABA-A receptors and increasing their affinity for GABA.
4. Which of the following is an example of a local anesthetic?
A) Lidocaine
B) Morphine
C) Fentanyl
D) Tramadol
Answer: A) Lidocaine
Explanation: Local anesthetics are drugs that block the transmission of nerve impulses from a specific area of the body, resulting in temporary loss of sensation. Lidocaine is an example of a local anesthetic, while morphine, fentanyl, and tramadol are opioid analgesics.
5. What is the antidote for heparin overdose?
A) Protamine sulfate
B) Vitamin K
C) Naloxone
D) Flumazenil
Answer: A) Protamine sulfate
Explanation: Protamine sulfate is a medication that can reverse the anticoagulant effects of heparin by binding to it and forming a stable complex that is rapidly cleared from the body. Vitamin K is the antidote for warfarin overdose, while naloxone and flumazenil are used to reverse the effects of opioid and benzodiazepine overdose, respectively.
(ii) Pharma Jurisprudence:
1. What is the maximum punishment for manufacturing and selling spurious drugs?
a) Imprisonment up to 3 years and fine
b) Imprisonment up to 5 years and fine
c) Imprisonment up to 7 years and fine
d) Imprisonment up to 10 years and fine
Answer: d) Imprisonment up to 10 years and fine
Explanation: The punishment for manufacturing and selling spurious drugs is mentioned in the Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940. According to Section 27, the punishment for manufacturing and selling spurious drugs is imprisonment up to 10 years and a fine of not less than Rs. 10,000.
2. What is the time limit for submitting a report of an adverse drug reaction to the Drug Controller General of India (DCGI)?
a) 10 days
b) 15 days
c) 30 days
d) 60 days
Answer: c) 30 days
Explanation: According to the Drugs and Cosmetics Rules, 1945, the time limit for submitting a report of an adverse drug reaction to the DCGI is 30 days. The report should include details such as the name of the drug, the name of the patient, the nature of the reaction, and the action taken.
3. Which of the following is not a Schedule H1 drug?
a) Tramadol
b) Codeine
c) Nitrazepam
d) Diazepam
Answer: b) Codeine
Explanation: Schedule H1 drugs are a category of prescription drugs in India that need to be sold with a prescription and under the supervision of a registered pharmacist. Tramadol, Nitrazepam, and Diazepam are Schedule H1 drugs, but Codeine is not.
4. What is the maximum percentage of alcohol allowed in a cough syrup?
a) 1%
b) 2%
c) 3%
d) 5%
Answer: b) 2%
Explanation: According to the Drugs and Cosmetics Rules, 1945, the maximum percentage of alcohol allowed in a cough syrup is 2%.
5. Which of the following is not a criterion for granting a patent for a pharmaceutical product?
a) Novelty
b) Inventiveness
c) Utility
d) Price
Answer: d) Price
Explanation: The criteria for granting a patent for a pharmaceutical product are novelty, inventiveness, and utility. The price of the product is not considered while granting a patent.
(i) Drugs Store and Inventory Management:
Which of the following is not a method of inventory management?
a) ABC analysis
b) FIFO
c) LIFO
d) HIFO
Answer: d) HIFO
Explanation:
ABC analysis, FIFO (First-In-First-Out), and LIFO (Last-In-First-Out) are all methods of inventory management. However, HIFO (Highest-In-First-Out) is not a recognized method of inventory management.
1. Which of the following is an example of a controlled drug?
a) Aspirin
b) Morphine
c) Ibuprofen
d) Paracetamol
Answer: b) Morphine
Explanation:
Controlled drugs are drugs that have a high potential for abuse and addiction. Examples of controlled drugs include morphine, oxycodone, and fentanyl. Aspirin, ibuprofen, and paracetamol are not controlled drugs.
2. What is the purpose of an expiration date on a drug label?
a) To indicate the date the drug was manufactured
b) To indicate the date the drug was dispensed
c) To indicate the date the drug should no longer be used
d) To indicate the date the drug was prescribed
Answer: c) To indicate the date the drug should no longer be used
Explanation:
The expiration date on a drug label indicates the date after which the drug should no longer be used. This is because drugs can degrade over time, which can make them less effective or even harmful. The expiration date is determined through stability testing, which measures how long a drug will remain stable and effective under various conditions.
3. Which of the following is not a factor that affects drug stability?
a) Temperature
b) Humidity
c) Light
d) Frequency of use
Answer: d) Frequency of use
Explanation:
Temperature, humidity, and light can all affect drug stability. For example, drugs should be stored in a cool, dry place away from direct sunlight to prevent degradation. Frequency of use, however, does not affect drug stability.
4. Which of the following is not a responsibility of a pharmacy technician?
a) Filling prescriptions
b) Communicating with patients
c) Administering vaccines
d) Ordering supplies
Answer: c) Administering vaccines
Explanation:
Pharmacy technicians are responsible for a range of tasks, including filling prescriptions, communicating with patients, and ordering supplies. However, administering vaccines is typically the responsibility of a licensed healthcare provider, such as a nurse or pharmacist.
5. Which of the following is NOT a common duty of a clinical pharmacist in a hospital setting?
A) Dispensing medications to patients
B) Reviewing patient charts to ensure proper medication use
C) Collaborating with physicians to adjust medication regimens
D) Assisting with patient admissions and discharges
Answer: A) Dispensing medications to patients. While dispensing medications may be a duty of a hospital pharmacist, it is typically performed by pharmacy technicians. Clinical pharmacists focus on ensuring safe and effective medication use through activities such as medication review, drug therapy management, and patient education.
Hospital and clinical pharmacy.
1. Which of the following medication dosage forms is administered through the intravenous (IV) route?
A) Capsule
B) Tablet
C) Injection
D) Transdermal patch
Answer: C) Injection. Medications administered through the IV route are injected directly into the patient’s bloodstream. Other common routes of administration include oral (capsule and tablet), topical (transdermal patch), and inhalation.
2. What is the purpose of medication reconciliation in the hospital setting?
A) To ensure that patients receive the correct medication doses
B) To prevent drug interactions and adverse events
C) To reduce medication errors during transitions of care
D) All of the above
Answer: D) All of the above. Medication reconciliation is the process of comparing a patient’s current medication regimen to their medication history to identify any discrepancies and ensure that they are receiving the correct medications at the appropriate doses. This process helps to prevent drug interactions and adverse events, and reduces the likelihood of medication errors during transitions of care.
3. Which of the following medications is used to treat hypertension (high blood pressure)?
A) Metformin
B) Atorvastatin
C) Lisinopril
D) Ibuprofen
Answer: C) Lisinopril. Lisinopril is an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor commonly used to treat hypertension. Metformin is used to treat diabetes, atorvastatin is used to lower cholesterol levels, and ibuprofen is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) used to relieve pain and inflammation.
4. What is the purpose of a drug formulary in the hospital setting?
A) To ensure that all medications used in the hospital are cost-effective
B) To provide a standardized list of medications available for use by healthcare providers
C) To limit the types of medications that can be prescribed to patients
D) None of the above
Answer: B) To provide a standardized list of medications available for use by healthcare providers. A drug formulary is a list of medications approved for use within a healthcare system, and it is typically designed to promote safe, effective, and cost-efficient medication use. By providing a standardized list of medications, the formulary helps to ensure that healthcare providers are selecting appropriate medications for their patients and reduces the likelihood of medication errors.
5. What is the purpose of medication reconciliation?
A) To ensure that patients receive the right medication, in the right dose, at the right time
B) To monitor patients for adverse drug reactions
C) To educate patients on proper medication use
D) To prescribe medications for patients
Explanation: The purpose of medication reconciliation is to ensure that patients receive the right medication, in the right dose, at the right time. This involves comparing the patient’s current medication regimen with their medication history to identify any discrepancies or potential drug-related issues. By reconciling these discrepancies, healthcare providers can improve medication safety and reduce the risk of adverse drug events.