Pharmacognosy
1. Which of the following is NOT a class of natural products?
A) Alkaloids
B) Flavonoids
C) Terpenoids
D) Synthetic compounds
Answer: D) Synthetic compounds
Explanation: Natural products are chemical compounds that are found in nature and are produced by living organisms. They can be classified into several classes, including alkaloids, flavonoids, and terpenoids. Synthetic compounds, on the other hand, are produced in the laboratory.
2. Which of the following is a secondary metabolite?
A) Glucose
B) Chlorophyll
C) Caffeine
D) Oxygen
Answer: C) Caffeine
Explanation: Secondary metabolites are compounds that are not essential for the growth and development of an organism, but they play a role in protecting the organism against predators, pathogens, or other environmental stressors. Caffeine is an example of a secondary metabolite that is produced by plants.
3. Which of the following is NOT a method of extracting natural products?
A) Maceration
B) Distillation
C) Fractionation
D) Polymerization
Answer: D) Polymerization
Explanation: Polymerization is a process in which monomers are linked together to form a polymer. It is not a method of extracting natural products. Maceration, distillation, and fractionation are all methods of extracting natural products from plants.
4. Which of the following is a medicinal plant commonly used in Ayurvedic medicine?
A) Echinacea
B) Ginkgo biloba
C) Turmeric
D) St. John’s Wort
Answer: C) Turmeric
Explanation: Turmeric is a medicinal plant that has been used in Ayurvedic medicine for centuries. It is believed to have anti-inflammatory and antioxidant properties and is used to treat a variety of health conditions.
5. Which of the following is an example of a poisonous plant?
A) Eucalyptus
B) Peppermint
C) Poison ivy
D) Aloe vera
Answer: C) Poison ivy
Explanation: Poison ivy is a poisonous plant that can cause a rash when it comes into contact with the skin. Eucalyptus, peppermint, and aloe vera are not poisonous plants and are often used in medicinal preparations.
Pharmaceutical Jurisprudence
1. Which of the following acts govern the import, manufacture, distribution, and sale of drugs and cosmetics in India?
A) Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940
B) Indian Pharmacopoeia Act, 1954
C) Pharmacy Act, 1948
D) Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006
Answer: A) Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940
Explanation: The Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940 is the primary legislation that governs the import, manufacture, distribution, and sale of drugs and cosmetics in India. It lays down the standards for the quality, safety, and efficacy of drugs and cosmetics, and also provides for the registration of drugs, licensing of manufacturers, and regulation of sales.
2. Which of the following schedules of the Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940 lists the drugs that are subject to more stringent regulations?
A) Schedule C
B) Schedule G
C) Schedule H
D) Schedule X
Answer: D) Schedule X
Explanation: Schedule X of the Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940 lists the drugs that are subject to more stringent regulations due to their potential for abuse and addiction. These drugs include opioids, psychotropic substances, and certain sedatives. The prescription of these drugs is strictly controlled, and they can only be dispensed by a registered pharmacist against a valid prescription from a registered medical practitioner.
3. Which of the following is a requirement for obtaining a drug manufacturing license in India?
A) Minimum qualification of a diploma in pharmacy
B) Completion of a 3-year apprenticeship in a drug manufacturing facility
C) Submission of a detailed manufacturing process and quality control plan
D) Registration with the Food Safety and Standards Authority of India
Answer: C) Submission of a detailed manufacturing process and quality control plan
Explanation: To obtain a drug manufacturing license in India, the applicant must submit a detailed manufacturing process and quality control plan to the regulatory authority. This plan must specify the facilities, equipment, and personnel to be used in the manufacturing process, as well as the testing and quality control procedures to be followed. The applicant must also comply with the Good Manufacturing Practices (GMP) guidelines and pass an inspection by the regulatory authority.
4. Which of the following is a responsibility of a registered pharmacist in India?
A) Diagnosing medical conditions and prescribing medications
B) Dispensing medications according to a prescription from a registered medical practitioner
C) Conducting clinical trials for new drugs
D) Manufacturing drugs for commercial distribution
Answer: B) Dispensing medications according to a prescription from a registered medical practitioner
Explanation: In India, a registered pharmacist is responsible for dispensing medications according to a prescription from a registered medical practitioner. The pharmacist must ensure that the prescription is genuine and valid, and that the medication is dispensed accurately and safely. The pharmacist must also provide counseling to the patient regarding the proper use of the medication and any potential side effects.
5. Which of the following authorities is responsible for approving new drugs for marketing in India?
A) Central Drugs Standard Control Organization (CDSCO)
B) Indian Pharmacopoeia Commission (IPC)
C) National Pharmaceutical Pricing Authority (NPPA)
D) Drugs Controller General of India (DCGI)
Answer: D) Drugs Controller General of India (DCGI)
Explanation: The Drugs Controller General of India (DCGI) is responsible for approving new drugs for marketing in India. The DCGI is the head of the Central Drugs Standard Control Organization (CDSCO) and oversees the regulatory approval process for drugs and medical devices in India. The DCGI evaluates the safety, efficacy, and quality of new drugs and determines whether they can be marketed in India.
Community Pharmacy
1. What is the most common medication error in community pharmacy?
A. Dispensing incorrect medication
B. Dispensing incorrect strength or dosage form
C. Dispensing expired medication
D. Dispensing medication with incorrect directions
Answer: B. Dispensing incorrect strength or dosage form
Explanation: Dispensing incorrect strength or dosage form is the most common medication error in community pharmacy. This error can lead to adverse drug events, which may harm the patient. Dispensing incorrect medication and expired medication are also common medication errors but occur less frequently than incorrect strength or dosage form. Dispensing medication with incorrect directions is also a medication error but is less common than dispensing incorrect strength or dosage form.
2. Which of the following is NOT a responsibility of a community pharmacist?
A. Dispensing medication
B. Counseling patients on medication use
C. Managing medication inventory
D. Prescribing medication
Answer: D. Prescribing medication
Explanation: Prescribing medication is not a responsibility of a community pharmacist. This is a responsibility of a prescriber, such as a physician or nurse practitioner. The responsibilities of a community pharmacist include dispensing medication, counseling patients on medication use, managing medication inventory, and monitoring patients for drug interactions and adverse effects.
3. What is the maximum number of refills allowed on a Schedule II controlled substance prescription?
A. No refills allowed
B. One refill allowed
C. Two refills allowed
D. Three refills allowed
Answer: A. No refills allowed
Explanation: Schedule II controlled substances are medications with a high potential for abuse and dependence. These medications cannot be refilled, and a new prescription must be obtained from the prescriber for each fill. This is to prevent overuse, abuse, and diversion of these medications.
4. Which of the following medications should be stored in a refrigerator?
A. Insulin
B. Warfarin
C. Prednisone
D. Ibuprofen
Answer: A. Insulin
Explanation: Insulin should be stored in a refrigerator to maintain its stability and efficacy. Warfarin, prednisone, and ibuprofen do not require refrigeration and can be stored at room temperature.
5. Which of the following medications should be taken with food to improve absorption?
A. Lisinopril
B. Metformin
C. Levothyroxine
D. Atorvastatin
Answer: B. Metformin
Explanation: Metformin should be taken with food to improve its absorption and reduce gastrointestinal side effects. Lisinopril, levothyroxine, and atorvastatin do not require food for absorption and can be taken on an empty stomach.
Drug store management and inventory management
1. What is the minimum number of times a pharmacy should conduct an inventory check?
a) Once a year
b) Twice a year
c) Three times a year
d) Four times a year
Answer: d) Four times a year
Explanation: A pharmacy should conduct inventory checks four times a year to ensure that it is adequately stocked and to prevent shortages or overstocking of drugs. These inventory checks should be conducted at regular intervals and should be documented for future reference.
2. What is the purpose of a perpetual inventory system?
a) To track inventory levels in real-time
b) To conduct physical inventory checks
c) To generate purchase orders
d) To track sales trends
Answer: a) To track inventory levels in real-time
Explanation: A perpetual inventory system allows a pharmacy to track inventory levels in real-time, which can help prevent stockouts and overstocking. This system uses computer software to track inventory levels and generates alerts when stock levels fall below a certain threshold.
3. Which of the following is a disadvantage of the just-in-time (JIT) inventory management system?
a) Reduced inventory holding costs
b) Lower storage requirements
c) Increased stockouts
d) Improved cash flow
Answer: c) Increased stockouts
Explanation: The just-in-time (JIT) inventory management system is designed to reduce inventory holding costs and lower storage requirements. However, one of its disadvantages is that it can increase the likelihood of stockouts because it relies on suppliers to deliver goods on time. If suppliers fail to deliver on time, the pharmacy may not have the necessary inventory to meet customer demand.
4. What is the purpose of the ABC analysis in inventory management?
a) To categorize inventory based on demand
b) To track inventory levels in real-time
c) To generate purchase orders
d) To track sales trends
Answer: a) To categorize inventory based on demand
Explanation: The ABC analysis is a method used in inventory management to categorize inventory based on demand. Items are classified as “A,” “B,” or “C” based on their value and the frequency of sales. “A” items are the most valuable and have the highest sales frequency, while “C” items are the least valuable and have the lowest sales frequency. This analysis helps a pharmacy prioritize inventory management efforts and allocate resources accordingly.
5. What is the purpose of a reorder point in inventory management?
a) To track inventory levels in real-time
b) To generate purchase orders
c) To categorize inventory based on demand
d) To track sales trends
Answer: b) To generate purchase orders
Explanation: A reorder point is the minimum inventory level at which a pharmacy should place a new order to prevent stockouts. Once the inventory level falls below the reorder point, the pharmacy generates a purchase order to replenish inventory levels. The purpose of the reorder point is to ensure that the pharmacy has adequate inventory levels to meet customer demand while avoiding overstocking.
HAP
1. Which of the following structures is responsible for the transport of oxygen in the blood?
a) White blood cells
b) Red blood cells
c) Platelets
d) Plasma
Answer: b) Red blood cells. Red blood cells contain hemoglobin, a protein that binds to oxygen and carries it throughout the body.
2. Which of the following is a part of the human brainstem?
a) Cerebellum
b) Hypothalamus
c) Medulla oblongata
d) Hippocampus
Answer: c) Medulla oblongata. The brainstem consists of the medulla oblongata, pons, and midbrain, which are responsible for regulating vital functions such as breathing, heart rate, and blood pressure.
3. Which of the following hormones is produced by the adrenal glands?
a) Insulin
b) Glucagon
c) Thyroxine
d) Cortisol
Answer: d) Cortisol. The adrenal glands produce a variety of hormones, including cortisol, which is involved in regulating stress response, immune function, and metabolism.
4. Which of the following is a function of the liver?
a) Production of insulin
b) Production of red blood cells
c) Detoxification of harmful substances
d) Regulation of body temperature
Answer: c) Detoxification of harmful substances. The liver plays a key role in removing toxins and other harmful substances from the body, as well as producing bile to aid in digestion and storing nutrients such as vitamins and minerals.
5. Which of the following is a muscle of the human face?
a) Pectoralis major
b) Rectus femoris
c) Orbicularis oculi
d) Sartorius
Answer: c) Orbicularis oculi. The orbicularis oculi muscle surrounds the eye and is responsible for closing the eyelids, while the pectoralis major and rectus femoris are muscles of the chest and thigh, respectively, and the sartorius is a muscle of the hip and thigh.
Biochemistry
Which of the following is NOT a function of proteins in the body?
a. Enzymatic catalysis
b. Structural support
c. Storage of genetic information
d. Transport of molecules
Answer: c. Storage of genetic information.
Explanation: Proteins are biomolecules that play a vital role in various functions within the body. They function as enzymes, structural components, transporters, and more. However, the storage of genetic information is not a function of proteins, but rather of nucleic acids like DNA and RNA.
2. Which of the following is a monosaccharide?
a. Starch
b. Sucrose
c. Glucose
d. Cellulose
Answer: c. Glucose
Explanation: Monosaccharides are simple sugars that cannot be broken down into smaller sugars. Glucose is a monosaccharide, while starch, sucrose, and cellulose are complex carbohydrates made up of multiple sugar units.
3. Which of the following is a fat-soluble vitamin?
a. Vitamin C
b. Vitamin D
c. Vitamin B12
d. Folic Acid
Answer: b. Vitamin D
Explanation: Fat-soluble vitamins are those that dissolve in fat and are stored in the body’s fatty tissues. Vitamin D is a fat-soluble vitamin that plays a crucial role in calcium absorption and bone health. Vitamin C, vitamin B12, and folic acid are water-soluble vitamins.
4. Which of the following is a characteristic of enzymes?
a. They are consumed during the reaction
b. They increase the activation energy of a reaction
c. They can only catalyze one specific reaction
d. They decrease the rate of a reaction
Answer: c. They can only catalyze one specific reaction.
Explanation: Enzymes are proteins that act as biological catalysts and speed up chemical reactions. They do not get consumed during the reaction and do not alter the activation energy of a reaction. Enzymes are specific to a particular reaction, meaning that each enzyme can only catalyze one specific reaction.
5. Which of the following is a function of the liver in the body?
a. Production of insulin
b. Digestion of proteins
c. Production of bile
d. Transport of oxygen
Answer: c. Production of bile
Explanation: The liver is a vital organ in the body that performs various functions, including the production of bile. Bile is a fluid that helps in the digestion and absorption of fats in the small intestine. The liver does not produce insulin, digest proteins, or transport oxygen.